Question 0 of 18

Drug Classification  ·  Questions 1–6

Identify the pharmacological class or categorical label for each drug or receptor. Vocabulary preparation is sufficient to answer every question in this section.

Question 1

Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is most commonly associated with torsades de pointes as a class effect due to potassium channel blockade and QT prolongation?

  • ASotalol
  • BLidocaine
  • CMetoprolol
  • DFlecainide

Correct Answer

A — Sotalol

Rationale

Sotalol is the antiarrhythmic agent most commonly associated with torsades de pointes as a class effect. Its Class Three potassium channel blocking activity prolongs the QT interval in a dose-dependent manner, and its torsades de pointes risk is the highest among the commonly used antiarrhythmic agents. Lidocaine (Class Ib) shortens rather than prolongs action potential duration. Metoprolol (Class Two) does not prolong the QT interval in a clinically meaningful way. Flecainide (Class Ic) prolongs the PR and QRS intervals but does not substantially prolong the QT interval.

Question 2

Which of the following groups of drugs are all non-antiarrhythmic agents that can prolong the QT interval and increase the risk of torsades de pointes?

  • AMetformin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin
  • BAspirin, furosemide, and metoprolol
  • CFluoroquinolone antibiotics, macrolide antibiotics, and antipsychotic medications
  • DBeta-blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers

Correct Answer

C — Fluoroquinolone antibiotics, macrolide antibiotics, and antipsychotic medications

Rationale

Many non-antiarrhythmic drugs prolong the QT interval by blocking cardiac potassium channels — the same mechanism as Class Three antiarrhythmic agents. Key classes include fluoroquinolone antibiotics (such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin), macrolide antibiotics (such as azithromycin and clarithromycin), azole antifungals (such as fluconazole), antipsychotic medications (such as haloperidol and ziprasidone), and antiemetic agents (such as ondansetron and methadone). When these drugs are combined with antiarrhythmic agents that also prolong the QT interval, or with each other, the risk of torsades de pointes is additive. The other options list drugs that do not primarily prolong the QT interval — antihypertensives, statins, and diuretics affect other aspects of cardiac physiology but are not QT-prolonging agents.

Question 3

Which of the following agents is classified outside the Vaughan Williams system and is the first-line pharmacological treatment for acute torsades de pointes?

  • AAmiodarone
  • BMagnesium sulfate
  • CLidocaine
  • DProcainamide

Correct Answer

B — Magnesium sulfate

Rationale

Magnesium sulfate is classified outside the Vaughan Williams system and is the first-line pharmacological treatment for acute torsades de pointes, regardless of the patient's serum magnesium level. It suppresses the early afterdepolarizations that initiate torsades de pointes by reducing inward calcium and sodium currents. Amiodarone is a multi-class agent used for other arrhythmias but is not first-line for torsades de pointes. Lidocaine and procainamide are sodium channel blockers used for ventricular tachycardia but are not first-line for torsades de pointes.

Question 4

Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is classified as having the longest elimination half-life of any drug in routine clinical use, ranging from 40 to 55 days?

  • ASotalol
  • BDofetilide
  • CLidocaine
  • DAmiodarone

Correct Answer

D — Amiodarone

Rationale

Amiodarone has an elimination half-life of 40 to 55 days — among the longest of any drug in routine clinical use. This extraordinary half-life results from extensive tissue distribution and accumulation, particularly in fat, lung, liver, and thyroid. Clinical consequences include a delayed onset of full effect despite loading doses, persistence of adverse effects for weeks to months after discontinuation, and prolonged drug interactions after the drug is stopped. Sotalol, dofetilide, and lidocaine all have substantially shorter half-lives.

Question 5

Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is classified as undergoing predominantly renal elimination, requiring dose reduction when creatinine clearance is impaired?

  • ASotalol
  • BAmiodarone
  • CLidocaine
  • DPropafenone

Correct Answer

A — Sotalol

Rationale

Sotalol is predominantly renally eliminated and requires dose adjustment based on creatinine clearance. Accumulation in renal impairment causes excessive QT prolongation and substantially increases the risk of torsades de pointes. Amiodarone is hepatically metabolized and does not require renal dose adjustment. Lidocaine is hepatically metabolized. Propafenone is also hepatically metabolized with minimal renal excretion of the active drug.

Question 6

Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is classified as a non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist with additional Class Three potassium channel blocking activity?

  • AMetoprolol
  • BBisoprolol
  • CSotalol
  • DAtenolol

Correct Answer

C — Sotalol

Rationale

Sotalol is classified as a non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist (Class Two) with additional potassium channel blocking activity (Class Three). This dual classification distinguishes it from pure beta-blockers such as metoprolol, bisoprolol, and atenolol, which are cardioselective Class Two agents without Class Three activity. Sotalol's potassium channel blockade prolongs the QT interval and the effective refractory period, making it effective for both rate and rhythm control but also conferring significant torsades de pointes risk.

Core Pharmacology  ·  Questions 7–14

Apply your understanding of drug mechanisms, pharmacokinetics, and adverse effects. Each question requires one reasoning step.

Question 7

Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for torsades de pointes (a dangerous polymorphic ventricular arrhythmia caused by QT prolongation) in a patient taking a QT-prolonging drug?

  • AMale sex, hyperkalemia, and tachycardia
  • BYoung age, high renal clearance, and normal QT interval at baseline
  • CElevated plasma drug levels above the therapeutic range only — torsades de pointes does not occur at therapeutic drug concentrations
  • DFemale sex, hypokalemia, bradycardia, and a QT interval above 500 milliseconds

Correct Answer

D — Female sex, hypokalemia, bradycardia, and a QT interval above 500 milliseconds

Rationale

Torsades de pointes risk is greatest when multiple factors converge. Female sex confers intrinsically longer baseline QT intervals and greater sensitivity to QT-prolonging drugs. Hypokalemia reduces competing potassium efflux during repolarization, exaggerating drug-induced QT prolongation. Bradycardia allows more time for the late inward currents that drive early afterdepolarizations to accumulate — torsades de pointes is a bradycardia-dependent arrhythmia, which explains why increasing heart rate is a treatment strategy. A corrected QT interval above 500 milliseconds is a widely used threshold associated with substantially increased risk. Torsades de pointes can and does occur at therapeutic drug concentrations when these risk factors are present — it is not confined to toxic drug levels. Combining multiple QT-prolonging drugs amplifies risk additively or synergistically.

Question 8

A patient taking digoxin for rate control in atrial fibrillation is started on amiodarone for rhythm control. Which of the following correctly identifies the required dose adjustment and its mechanism?

  • AIncrease the digoxin dose by 50 percent because amiodarone induces renal transporters that accelerate digoxin clearance
  • BHalve the digoxin dose because amiodarone reduces both renal tubular secretion and non-renal clearance of digoxin, raising plasma digoxin levels into the toxic range
  • CNo adjustment is needed because amiodarone and digoxin act on different receptors with no pharmacokinetic interaction
  • DDiscontinue digoxin because amiodarone provides equivalent rate control through its beta-blocking activity, making digoxin redundant and potentially toxic

Correct Answer

B — Halve the digoxin dose because amiodarone reduces both renal tubular secretion and non-renal clearance of digoxin, raising plasma digoxin levels into the toxic range

Rationale

Amiodarone reduces digoxin clearance through two routes: it inhibits P-glycoprotein-mediated renal tubular secretion of digoxin (reducing renal elimination) and also reduces non-renal clearance pathways. Both mechanisms cause digoxin to accumulate in plasma. Since digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, the resulting rise in plasma concentration can quickly produce toxicity — manifesting as nausea, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular block. The standard recommendation is to halve the digoxin dose when amiodarone is initiated, then monitor digoxin levels and clinical status closely. This interaction persists for months after amiodarone is stopped because of amiodarone's extremely long half-life. The same principle applies when other P-glycoprotein inhibitors are added to digoxin regimens.

Question 9

Cimetidine (an H2 receptor blocker used for acid suppression) is absolutely contraindicated with dofetilide. Which of the following best explains this interaction?

  • ACimetidine inhibits the renal cation transport system responsible for dofetilide elimination, causing drug accumulation and excessive QT prolongation
  • BCimetidine directly blocks cardiac potassium channels, adding its own QT-prolonging effect on top of dofetilide's
  • CCimetidine inhibits CYP3A4, blocking hepatic metabolism of dofetilide and raising plasma levels
  • DCimetidine competes with dofetilide for plasma protein binding, displacing dofetilide and raising its free plasma concentration

Correct Answer

A — Cimetidine inhibits the renal cation transport system responsible for dofetilide elimination, causing drug accumulation and excessive QT prolongation

Rationale

Dofetilide is eliminated primarily through renal tubular secretion via the organic cation transporter system. Cimetidine inhibits this transport system, blocking dofetilide's elimination and causing plasma concentrations to rise substantially. Since dofetilide prolongs the QT interval in a directly dose-dependent manner, accumulation produces excessive QT prolongation and a markedly elevated risk of torsades de pointes (a dangerous polymorphic ventricular arrhythmia). Trimethoprim (an antibiotic) causes the same interaction through the same transport pathway and is equally contraindicated. Verapamil's contraindication with dofetilide involves a different mechanism — verapamil both inhibits renal tubular secretion of dofetilide and prolongs the QT interval itself, making the combination doubly dangerous. Cimetidine does not directly block cardiac potassium channels and is not primarily a CYP3A4 inhibitor in this context.

Question 10

A patient taking sotalol for atrial fibrillation is also prescribed furosemide (a loop diuretic) for fluid overload. Which of the following best explains why this combination requires careful monitoring?

  • AFurosemide reduces renal clearance of sotalol by competing for the same tubular secretion pathway, raising sotalol plasma levels
  • BFurosemide directly prolongs the QT interval through potassium channel blockade, adding to sotalol's effect
  • CFurosemide causes hypokalemia, which reduces competition for potassium channel binding and amplifies sotalol's QT-prolonging effect, increasing torsades de pointes risk
  • DFurosemide activates the renin-angiotensin system, raising aldosterone levels that sensitize cardiac tissue to sotalol's proarrhythmic effects

Correct Answer

C — Furosemide causes hypokalemia, which reduces competition for potassium channel binding and amplifies sotalol's QT-prolonging effect, increasing torsades de pointes risk

Rationale

Loop diuretics such as furosemide cause urinary potassium wasting, producing hypokalemia. Low extracellular potassium reduces the outward potassium current during cardiac repolarization and also reduces the competition between potassium ions and sotalol at the delayed rectifier potassium channel — allowing sotalol to produce greater channel blockade at the same plasma concentration. The result is more pronounced QT prolongation and an increased risk of torsades de pointes. Electrolyte monitoring — particularly potassium and magnesium — is mandatory in patients taking sotalol (or any QT-prolonging antiarrhythmic) who are also on diuretics. Potassium should be maintained above 4.0 mEq/L, and ideally above 4.5 mEq/L, in these patients. Furosemide does not directly block potassium channels or reduce sotalol clearance through tubular competition.

Question 11

A patient with a creatinine clearance of 25 milliliters per minute requires antiarrhythmic therapy. Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents can be used without renal dose adjustment in this patient?

  • ASotalol — because its beta-blocking component is renally cleared but the Class Three component is not
  • BDofetilide — because renal impairment reduces the drug's volume of distribution, maintaining therapeutic plasma levels without adjustment
  • CDigoxin — because its narrow therapeutic index means toxicity is only a concern at supratherapeutic doses, which renal impairment does not produce
  • DAmiodarone — because it is hepatically metabolized and does not depend on renal clearance, making it safe to use at standard doses in renal impairment

Correct Answer

D — Amiodarone — because it is hepatically metabolized and does not depend on renal clearance, making it safe to use at standard doses in renal impairment

Rationale

Amiodarone is extensively metabolized by the liver and excreted in bile; renal clearance plays no meaningful role in its elimination. It can therefore be used at standard doses regardless of renal function — making it a preferred antiarrhythmic option in patients with significant renal impairment who require rhythm or rate control. Lidocaine and mexiletine are similarly hepatically metabolized and safe in renal impairment. By contrast, sotalol is renally cleared and contraindicated at creatinine clearance below 40 milliliters per minute. Dofetilide requires a four-tier renal dose reduction based on creatinine clearance. Digoxin accumulates in renal impairment due to reduced renal elimination — its narrow therapeutic index means that even modest accumulation can produce toxicity, requiring dose reduction and careful monitoring in this patient.

Question 12

A pregnant patient with persistent atrial fibrillation requires chronic rate control. Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is considered relatively safe for rate control during pregnancy?

  • AAmiodarone — because its long half-life provides stable plasma levels that protect against maternal arrhythmia throughout pregnancy
  • BMetoprolol — a beta-blocker that is considered relatively safe in pregnancy for rate control, though fetal heart rate monitoring is recommended
  • CSotalol — because its dual Class Two and Three activity provides superior rate and rhythm control with minimal fetal effects
  • DVerapamil — because non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers do not cross the placenta and are the safest rate control option in pregnancy

Correct Answer

B — Metoprolol — a beta-blocker that is considered relatively safe in pregnancy for rate control, though fetal heart rate monitoring is recommended

Rationale

Beta-blockers, particularly metoprolol, are considered relatively safe for rate control in pregnancy and are widely used when the maternal benefit outweighs the fetal risk. Beta-blockers do cross the placenta and can cause fetal bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and intrauterine growth restriction — effects that warrant monitoring but do not preclude use when rate control is necessary. Digoxin is also considered relatively safe in pregnancy and is an alternative for rate control. Amiodarone is avoided in pregnancy because it causes neonatal hypothyroidism, bradycardia, and QT prolongation due to its high iodine content and placental transfer. Sotalol carries QT prolongation risk and is not a preferred agent in pregnancy. Verapamil does cross the placenta and can cause fetal bradycardia and heart block, making it a less preferred option.

Question 13

When initiating antiarrhythmic therapy in an elderly patient, which of the following principles best explains why lower starting doses are used compared to younger patients?

  • AAge-related decline in renal function reduces drug clearance; standard doses produce higher plasma levels in elderly patients, increasing the risk of toxicity and QT prolongation
  • BElderly patients have fewer cardiac arrhythmias than younger patients, so lower doses provide adequate suppression without over-treatment
  • CElderly patients have upregulated cardiac ion channels that are more sensitive to drug binding, requiring lower doses to achieve equivalent pharmacodynamic effect
  • DElderly patients absorb antiarrhythmic drugs more rapidly from the gastrointestinal tract, reaching peak plasma levels faster and requiring lower total doses

Correct Answer

A — Age-related decline in renal function reduces drug clearance; standard doses produce higher plasma levels in elderly patients, increasing the risk of toxicity and QT prolongation

Rationale

Renal function declines with age — a phenomenon that is not always apparent from serum creatinine alone because muscle mass also decreases with age, reducing creatinine production. Formal calculation of creatinine clearance (using formulas such as the Cockcroft-Gault equation) is therefore required before initiating renally cleared antiarrhythmics in elderly patients. Reduced clearance of drugs such as sotalol, dofetilide, digoxin, and procainamide causes accumulation at standard doses, producing higher plasma concentrations than intended. For QT-prolonging agents this means greater QT prolongation and higher torsades de pointes risk; for digoxin it means toxicity at doses that would be safe in younger patients. Starting at half the standard dose and titrating slowly, monitoring the QT interval, and targeting a lower digoxin plasma level (typically below 0.8 nanograms per milliliter rather than the standard upper limit of 2.0) are the key adjustments in elderly patients.

Question 14

A patient taking simvastatin for hyperlipidemia is started on amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following best explains the drug interaction concern with this combination?

  • AAmiodarone induces CYP3A4, reducing simvastatin plasma levels and making cholesterol-lowering therapy less effective
  • BSimvastatin directly competes with amiodarone for renal clearance, raising amiodarone plasma levels and increasing its toxicity
  • CAmiodarone inhibits CYP3A4, reducing simvastatin metabolism and raising statin plasma levels, increasing the risk of statin-induced myopathy
  • DBoth drugs prolong the QT interval and the combination produces additive cardiac toxicity regardless of their hepatic metabolism

Correct Answer

C — Amiodarone inhibits CYP3A4, reducing simvastatin metabolism and raising statin plasma levels, increasing the risk of statin-induced myopathy

Rationale

Amiodarone is a broad inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes, including CYP3A4. Simvastatin (and lovastatin) are metabolized primarily by CYP3A4; when amiodarone inhibits this enzyme, statin clearance falls and plasma statin concentrations rise. Elevated statin levels increase the risk of myopathy — muscle injury ranging from mild myalgia to severe rhabdomyolysis with kidney injury. The practical response is to switch the patient to a statin with less CYP3A4 dependence (such as rosuvastatin or pravastatin) or to cap the simvastatin dose at a lower level. This interaction is a practical consequence of amiodarone's multi-enzyme inhibition profile and is a clinically encountered problem given how frequently patients with atrial fibrillation are also taking statins for cardiovascular risk reduction. Statins do not prolong the QT interval.

Clinical Correlations  ·  Questions 15–18

Apply pharmacological knowledge to clinical scenarios. Each vignette presents a patient situation; the question tests mechanism of action or drug selection.

Question 15

A 66-year-old woman taking sotalol for atrial fibrillation is admitted with acute heart failure and started on furosemide. Three days later she develops a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (a rapidly shifting, irregular ventricular rhythm) on telemetry. Her serum potassium is 2.9 mEq/L. Which of the following best explains the mechanism by which furosemide contributed to this arrhythmia?

  • AFurosemide inhibits renal tubular secretion of sotalol, raising sotalol plasma levels and producing toxic QT prolongation
  • BFurosemide directly blocks cardiac potassium channels, adding its own QT-prolonging effect to that of sotalol
  • CFurosemide reduces intravascular volume, lowering renal blood flow and reducing sotalol clearance, causing drug accumulation
  • DFurosemide caused hypokalemia, which amplified sotalol's potassium channel blocking effect and produced excessive QT prolongation, triggering torsades de pointes

Correct Answer

D — Furosemide caused hypokalemia, which amplified sotalol's potassium channel blocking effect and produced excessive QT prolongation, triggering torsades de pointes

Rationale

Furosemide causes urinary potassium wasting, producing hypokalemia. When extracellular potassium falls, there is less potassium available to flow outward through delayed rectifier potassium channels during repolarization — both because the concentration gradient is reduced and because potassium normally competes with drug binding at the channel. The result is that sotalol produces greater channel blockade and more QT prolongation at the same plasma concentration. This converted a previously tolerated sotalol dose into a proarrhythmic combination. Torsades de pointes (a dangerous polymorphic ventricular arrhythmia caused by QT prolongation) followed. This is a clinically common and preventable interaction: any patient taking a QT-prolonging antiarrhythmic who is started on a diuretic requires close electrolyte monitoring and potassium replacement to maintain levels above 4.0 to 4.5 mEq/L. Furosemide does not directly block potassium channels or inhibit sotalol's tubular secretion.

Question 16

A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and moderate renal impairment is started on dofetilide for rhythm control after appropriate dose adjustment. His medication list includes trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole prescribed by another physician for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following best explains why this antibiotic is contraindicated with dofetilide?

  • ATrimethoprim directly blocks the same cardiac potassium channels as dofetilide, producing additive QT prolongation through a shared pharmacodynamic mechanism
  • BTrimethoprim inhibits the renal cation transporter responsible for dofetilide elimination, causing dofetilide to accumulate and producing dangerous QT prolongation
  • CTrimethoprim inhibits CYP2C9, blocking hepatic metabolism of dofetilide and raising plasma drug levels
  • DTrimethoprim raises serum creatinine, making the dofetilide dose appear adequate when it is actually too high for the patient's true renal function

Correct Answer

B — Trimethoprim inhibits the renal cation transporter responsible for dofetilide elimination, causing dofetilide to accumulate and producing dangerous QT prolongation

Rationale

Dofetilide is eliminated primarily through active renal tubular secretion via the organic cation transporter system. Trimethoprim inhibits this transporter, blocking dofetilide's elimination and causing plasma concentrations to rise substantially. Since dofetilide prolongs the QT interval in a directly dose-dependent manner, accumulation produces excessive QT prolongation and a markedly elevated risk of torsades de pointes (a dangerous polymorphic ventricular arrhythmia). This interaction is especially dangerous in this patient because his existing renal impairment has already reduced baseline dofetilide clearance — adding trimethoprim's transporter inhibition compounds the effect. Cimetidine causes the same interaction through the same renal transport pathway. Dofetilide is not hepatically metabolized through CYP2C9, and trimethoprim's effect on serum creatinine (which it can raise without affecting true glomerular filtration rate) is a separate consideration that would not directly cause dofetilide accumulation through the mechanism described here.

Question 17

A 28-year-old woman at 22 weeks of pregnancy presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset palpitations and a heart rate of 178 beats per minute. An electrocardiogram (a tracing of the heart's electrical activity) shows a narrow-complex regular tachycardia consistent with supraventricular tachycardia. She is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment, and what property makes it safe in pregnancy?

  • AAmiodarone — because its multi-class activity terminates supraventricular tachycardia through multiple mechanisms, providing the most reliable conversion
  • BVerapamil — because non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers are the safest antiarrhythmic class in pregnancy due to their minimal placental transfer
  • CAdenosine — because its ultra-short half-life of less than 10 seconds means it is degraded before reaching the fetus in significant concentrations
  • DSotalol — because its combined beta-blocking and QT-prolonging activity terminates supraventricular tachycardia while providing sustained rate control during pregnancy

Correct Answer

C — Adenosine — because its ultra-short half-life of less than 10 seconds means it is degraded before reaching the fetus in significant concentrations

Rationale

Adenosine is the first-line agent for acute termination of supraventricular tachycardia during pregnancy. Its half-life of less than 10 seconds — due to rapid uptake by red blood cells and endothelial cells and degradation by adenosine deaminase — means the drug is cleared from maternal blood before it can reach the placenta and fetal circulation in meaningful amounts. This pharmacokinetic property makes it the antiarrhythmic with the most favorable safety profile for acute use in pregnancy. Adenosine terminates atrioventricular node-dependent re-entry circuits (the mechanism of most supraventricular tachycardias) by transiently blocking nodal conduction. Amiodarone is avoided in pregnancy due to neonatal thyroid and cardiac effects. Verapamil can cause fetal bradycardia and heart block. Sotalol carries QT prolongation risk and is not preferred for acute supraventricular tachycardia termination in any population.

Question 18

An 82-year-old man with atrial fibrillation is started on sotalol by a colleague who uses the same starting dose as in younger adults. His serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL — within the laboratory normal range — but his calculated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft-Gault formula is 32 milliliters per minute. He develops a prolonged QT interval and torsades de pointes on day two. Which of the following best explains why formal creatinine clearance calculation — rather than serum creatinine alone — is required before starting sotalol in elderly patients?

  • AElderly patients have reduced muscle mass and produce less creatinine, so serum creatinine appears normal even when renal clearance is substantially reduced; calculated creatinine clearance reveals the true reduction in sotalol elimination capacity
  • BElderly patients have increased hepatic metabolism of sotalol that compensates for reduced renal clearance, so serum creatinine alone underestimates total sotalol clearance
  • CSotalol is primarily hepatically cleared in elderly patients, so creatinine clearance calculation is performed to estimate hepatic rather than renal drug elimination capacity
  • DElderly patients have decreased plasma protein binding of sotalol, so serum creatinine does not reflect the elevated free drug fraction that drives QT prolongation

Correct Answer

A — Elderly patients have reduced muscle mass and produce less creatinine, so serum creatinine appears normal even when renal clearance is substantially reduced; calculated creatinine clearance reveals the true reduction in sotalol elimination capacity

Rationale

Serum creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism. In elderly patients, age-related loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) reduces creatinine production, so serum creatinine values remain within the normal laboratory range even when the kidneys are filtering at a substantially reduced rate. A serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL in an 82-year-old man with low muscle mass may correspond to a creatinine clearance of only 30 milliliters per minute — well below the 40 milliliters per minute threshold at which sotalol is contraindicated. The Cockcroft-Gault equation accounts for age, weight, and sex in addition to serum creatinine, providing a far more accurate estimate of renal drug clearance. Sotalol is renally eliminated and produces QT prolongation in direct proportion to its plasma concentration; when clearance is reduced and the drug accumulates, excessive QT prolongation and torsades de pointes (a dangerous polymorphic ventricular arrhythmia caused by QT prolongation) follow. Formal creatinine clearance calculation before initiating any renally cleared QT-prolonging antiarrhythmic in elderly patients is therefore a mandatory safety step.